Tuesday, December 18, 2012

1Z0-873 Real Exam Questions And Answer


Siebelのロイヤリティ管理8.2.2のリリースはOracleâEUR(TM)のさらに別の例で1Z0-873試験にベスト·オブ·ブリードのロイヤルティ·プログラムの開発においてのhiexam業界のリーダーとしての地位をしっかりと確立されたsです。 JavaFXの2.1の追加のユーザーインターフェイスの機能強化が含まれます:Oracleのコンボボックス、積み上げグラフと、アプリケーション全体のメニューバーのコントロールをHP0-728 questions and answers
サンDiegoâEUR(TM)地域の交通ネットワークの重要な部分は、NCTDには、トランジットのhiexamサービスのファミリを通じて、年間1200万人以上の乗客がオラクルを提供しています1Z0-873試験のバスシステム、通勤鉄道サービス、パラトランジットとライトレール。
新しい問題は定期的にアップデートのリリースはさらに新しい技術や標準のサポートだけでなく、オラクルのOracle 1Z0-873試験のアプリケーション開発フレームワーク(ADF)の11gへのアップデートを含む改良された統合開発環境(IDE)を提供することにより、全体的な開発経験を向上させます。新しいJavaServerのサポートは2.0とFacelets規格に直面しています:Java EEのWeb開発者にとって非常に視覚的な編集環境を提供します。
1Z0-873試験の詳細を調査され、常に正確かつ論理生成する業界での経験を使って定期的にアップデートプロフェッショナル認定専門家による生産されています。あなたが別のWebサイトや書籍から質問を受けるかもしれないが、しかし論理は肝心な点です。当社のOracle製品はあなたの最初の試みでテストに合格し、また、あなたの貴重な時間の節約に役立ちます。
のhiexam試験トレーニングは、ニーズとOracleの学習スタイルに合わせて様々なフォーマットで利用可能です。1Z0-851 exam questionあなたは、あるかどうかを実地触覚学習者、視覚的に、あるいは教科書の訓練のベテラン、私達はあなたの最初の時間であなたの模擬試験を合格に役立つ1Z0-873のリソースを持っています

Thursday, November 8, 2012

Microsoft MB4-213 exam resources



In the IT industry,the Solomon 6.0 Tools For Visual Basic(MB4-213) certification exam is very important, it can provide you with good employment opportunities.

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IBM 000-516 exam materials


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HP HP0-276 exam materials


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Monday, November 5, 2012

real MB2-868 exam dumps



MB2-868 is a popular examination, however, because the more the focus of its examination, the need to learn a wide range of knowledge, the pass rate has been low.

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QUESTION
In Microsoft Dynamics CRM Online 2011, you create a static marketing list from an Advanced Find of
leads. A month later, you lock and deactivate the marketing list. Which of the following statements
about the marketing list are true?

A.Deleted leads remain in the marketing list.
B.Deleting a lead also removes the lead from the marketing list.
C.Marketing list members can be added after the list is activated.
D.Marketing list members cannot be qualified until the list is activated and unlocked.

Answer: B


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3. HP Systems Insight Manager (SIM) can be configured to perform actions on events it receives. Which are available default actions?

A. Page, Email, Run Custom Command, or Forward as WBEM event

B. Page, Email, Run Custom Command, Reboot system, or Power Down System

C. Page, Email, Write to System Log of Target, Forward as SNMP Trap, or Deploy Image

D. Page, Email, Run Custom Command, Assign, Forward as SNMP Trap, Write to System Log, or Clear Event

Answer: D

4. Where can one of HP's Certified Partners find more information on CCI? Select TWO.

A. WWW.HP.COM/GO/CCI

B. WWW.BLADES.COM/CCI

C. WWW.HPBLADeXPERT.ORG

D. HPs Channel Services Network (aka: CSN")

Answer: AD

5. Which two documents from your CCI training are excellent sources of information for designing a CCI implementation? Select TWO.

A. CCI Lab Guide

B. CCI Student Guide

C. HP Adaptive Infrastructure Reference Guide

D. Microsoft RDC Optimization Catalog for use with CCI

Answer: AB

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Tuesday, October 30, 2012

MB6-513 exam study materials


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QUESTION
To edit the User Help in Microsoft Dynamics AX 4.0:

A. In Microsoft Dynamics AX 4.0, click F1 and then click Edit.
B. Edit the help in Microsoft Word and save it as an HTML document.
C. Decompile the chm file and edit the help using an HTML editor.
D. Open the Help node in the AOT and click edit on the help file.

Answer: C


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000-M10 pdf knowledge points

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3.What analogy is used to describe builders in WebSphere Portlet Factory?

A.Robots on a production line

B.Product components on an assembly line

C.The frame of a building on a construction site

D.Workers on an assembly line

Correct:A

4.Which of the following builders is used to establish that a model is a service provider?

A.The service operation builder

B.The service test builder

C.The service definition builder

D.The service consumer builder

Correct:C

5.What is the function of the Portlet Adapter builder?

A.To adapt J2EE applications to be deployed as a WAR file

B.To allow portlets developed in WebSphere Portlet Factory to plug into WebSphere Portal

C.To contain the required WebSphere Portlet Factory classes necessary to deploy a JAR file to WebSphere Portal

D.None of the above

Correct:B

HP0-263 study guide exam


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Wednesday, October 24, 2012

HP HP0-J54 learning materials


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QUESTION
What is the primary factor to be considered when sizing the replication link between HP D2D backup systems?

A. blackout window length
B. WAN link efficiency
C. minimum reverse replication bandwidth
D. change rate of application data

Answer: D


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IBM LOT-721 examination


IBM Certification Exam IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 Building the Infrastructure, I am glad to share my joy with you. IBM LOT-721 examination if you are learning, then I suggest that you can try this site to provide service, it can really help you a lot.


3. Due to space considerations on her Domino server, Anissa has had to locate new databases under a folder not in the Domino data directory. Instead she has placed them on the F drive. Which one of the following should Anissa use to make these databases accessible to the users?

A. Database Link

B. Directory Link

C. Profile Document

D. File Protection Document

Answer: B

4. The Domino administrator has created a response file for a silent server installation. What parameter must be run on the server to utilize this response file?

A. setup.exe -silent -options c:\temp\install.txt

B. nsetup.exe -silent -options c:\temp\install.txt

C. setup.exe -response -options c:\temp\install.txt

D. silent.exe -response -options c:\temp\install.txt

Answer: A

5. If the Fault Analyzer task locates duplicate fault reports, which is the next step the task will take?

A. The new crash is reported as a response to the original crash

B. The new crash is not reported because it matches a previous fault reported

C. The new crash is reported as a new document but a doclink is created to the original

D. The new crash is reported as a new document and no reference to matching documents can be created

Answer: A

LOT-829 training material


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Wednesday, October 17, 2012

Symantec 250-400 exam dumps


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QUESTION
Which Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 component allows an administrator to track
computer resources before an Altiris Agent is installed?

A. Patch Management
B. Application Discovery
C. Handheld Management
D. Network Discovery

Answer: C


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Cisco 642-661 certification


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QUESTION 1
Network topology exhibit

What can prevent the corresponding BGP session from being successfully established?

A. Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 5 cannot establish the IBGP session because Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 5 are not directly connected.
B. Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 establish the EBGP session if the BGP holddown timers between the two EBGP neighbors are different.
C. Certkiller 2 and Certkiller 5 cannot establish the IBGP session using the loopback0 interface if the EBGP-multihop value is set to the default value.
D. Certkiller 1 and Certkiller 2 cannot establish the EBGP session using the loopback0 interface if the EBGP-multihop value is set to the default value.

Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Exhibit:

How should the EBGP session between R1 and R2 be established to enable load balancing? (Choose three)

A. Use the maximum-paths 2 option.
B. Use the ebgp-multihop 2 option.
C. Use static routes on R1 and R2 to reach the other router's loopback.
D. Establish a single EBGP session using the loopback0 interface IP address on R1 and R2.
E. Establish twp EBGP sessions using both the S0 and S1 interface IP address on R1 and R2.

Answer: BCD


QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about an EBGP session or an IBGP session? (Choose two.)

A. IBGP uses AS-Path to detect routing information loops within the AS.
B. EBGP routes have a default Admin Distance of 20 and IBGP routes have a default Admin Distance of 200.
C. No BGP attributes are changed in EBGP updates except for the next-hop attribute if next-hop-self is configured.
D. Routes learned from an EBGP peer not advertised to another EBGP peer to prevent routing information loops.
E. IBGP uses split horizon to prevent routing information loops; routes learned from an IBGP peer are not advertised to another IBGP peer.

Answer: BE


IBM 000-913 training materials


000-913 exam IBM company informix 4gl development certification exam official code, IBM 000-913 certification, many large and medium-sized enterprises to choose talents standard prerequisite. Of course, 000-913s extensive coverage of the exam, the exam is relatively difficult.

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Wednesday, October 10, 2012

study 642-567 exam certification


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Which action enables the MARS Appliance to ignore false positive events by either dropping the events completely, or by just logging them to the database?

A. Creating System Inspection Rules using the Drop operation

B. Creating Drop Rules

C. Inactivating the Rules

D. Inactivating events

E. Deleting the false positive events from the Incidents > False Positives screen

F. Deleting the false positive events from the Management > Event Management screen

Answer: B


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1.Which value given by the command query db f=d indicates a potential buffer pool storage deficiency on the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?

A.total usable buffers

B.total buffer requests

C.cache hit percentage

D.cache wait percentage

Correct:C

2.How can it be proven that a current backup session is transferring data over the SAN path?

A.check the dsmerror.log

B.check the dsmsched.log

C.run the q session command on the Managed Systems for SAN (Storage Agent)

D.run the q stgpool f=d command on the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Storage Manager) server

Correct:C

3.After finishing the IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Storage Manager) server installation, how is the installation configured so that the server appears in the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC)?

A.use the DEFINE SERVER command

B.use the UPDATE SERVER command

C.define the server in the ISC.admin file

D.define the server within the ISC/Administration Center

Correct:D

IBM 000-205 dumps certification


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Friday, October 5, 2012

HP HP0-W03 Practice Exam


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Where do you install the HP Cluster Extension (CLX)?

A.on the switch as a license

B.on all servers in the cluster

C.on one cluster server at each site

D.on the same server as Command View

Correct:B


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1.Which tool can NOT be used to connect Domino with other systems such as DBMS, the platform file system, Enterprise Resource Planning systems, and Transaction Processing systems?

A.Lotus Enterprise Integrator for Domino

B.Domino Enterprise Connection Services

C.Lotus Connector LotusScript Extensions

D.Lotus Connector Java extensions

Correct:D

2.Why do replication or save conflicts occur?

A.There are too many replicas on various servers

B.The replication interval is too long

C.Users simultaneously edit the same document in different copies of a database

D.Users had modified the same document in two different replicas between replication sessions

Correct:D

3.Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Domino clustering?

A.Less hardware cost

B.Workload balancing

C.High availability

D.Scalability

Correct:A

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Tuesday, September 25, 2012

the 310-016 study guide


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Which four JumpStart client items can be configured using the sysidcfg file? (Choose four.)

A.locale

B.name service

C.root password

D.client host name

E.patch information

F.file system layout

G.software configuration cluster

Correct:A B C D


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1.By default, if a NetWare server is synchronization on the network, how frequently does it check for time?

A. Every 3 minutes

B. Every 5 minutes

C. Every 10 minutes

D. Every 15 minutes

E. Every 20 minutes

Answer: C

2.What needs to be done to allow servers to find any time server rega******f the tree it's in?

A. Set Directory tree mode to off

B. Set timesync restart flag to on

C. Set Service Advertising Protocol to off

D. Set the default time server type to reference

Answer: A

3.You have installed the first NetWare 5 server for your company and accepted all default settings. What type of time server is the server?

A. Primary

B. Reference

C. Secondary

D. Single reference

E. Secondary reference

Answer: D


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Saturday, September 22, 2012

the 1Y0-A03 exam question


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An administrator should configure desktops as assigned when __________. (Choose the phrase that correctly completes the sentence.) 

A.XenApp will be used to deliver applications 

B.users will be installing their own applications 

C.the administrator needs to apply specific access policies to a few users 

D.roaming profiles are used to allow end users to personalize their desktops 

Answer:B 


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QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit button to begin.
You need to configure a special purpose thermal-transfer printer for your organization. Because it doesn't have a built-in network interface, you've connected it to LPT1 on your DA2 server using a parallel cable. The Printer Agents for your organization's printers are managed by an iPrint Manager and Broker on your DA1 server. You want to configure the iPrint Manager on DA1 to manage this new printer as well. Will this configuration work?

A.Yes, all iPrint requirements have been met.
B.No, iPrint isn't compatible with thermal printers.
C.No, the Broker and the Manager can't reside on the same server.
D.No, iPrint can't manage a printer connected to an LPT port on a server.
E.No, locally-connected printers must have the Manager loaded on the local server.

Answer: E

QUESTION 2
Your company has four regional offices. You are the overall administrator for the entire organization. Each regional office has its own network administrator. You allow yourself and each regional administrator to use the Admin user object to manage the eDirectory tree. You have configured each user object to require unique passwords and to limit grace logins to 3. All user objects for temporary employees have an expiration date assigned to them. Do these policies conform to Novell's security recommendations.?

A.Yes, all Novell security recommendations have been met.
B.No, you shouldn't allow users objects to have grace logins.
C.No, you shouldn't assign user accounts to temporary employees.
D.No, you shouldn't use multiple network administrators for the same tree.
E.No, each container administrator should have their own user object with specific rights assigned.

Answer: E

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Monday, September 10, 2012

Cisco 650-293 training material


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The FindMe TMapplication on the CiscoTelePresenceVCS allows a call to be routed to which of these
places? Select exactly 1answer(s) from the following:
A. only the office system of the user
B. all unit that are selected in the FindMe Configuration of the user
C. any unit that is configured with the FindMe name of the user.
D. Only the CiscoTelePresenceMovi system of the user.
Answer: C

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1. Given the function invocation expression ${my:reverse("42")}, and that the function reverse is mapped
into a Java method called reverse, which two are valid signatures for the Java method reverse? (Choose
two.)
A. public int reverse(String val)
B. public String reverse(String val)
C. public static int reverse(String val)
D. public static String reverse(int val)
E. private static double reverse(double val)
F. public int reverse(String value, String name)
G. public static int reverse(int value, String name)
Answer: CD

2. For an HttpServletResponse response, which two create a custom header? (Choose two.)
A. response.setHeader("X-MyHeader", "34");
B. response.addHeader("X-MyHeader", "34");
C. response.setHeader(new HttpHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
D. response.addHeader(new HttpHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
E. response.addHeader(new ServletHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
F. response.setHeader(new ServletHeader("X-MyHeader", "34"));
Answer: AB

3. For a given ServletResponse response, which two retrieve an object for writing text data? (Choose
two.)
A. response.getWriter()
B. response.getOutputStream()
C. response.getOutputWriter()
D. response.getWriter().getOutputStream()
E. response.getWriter(Writer.OUTPUT_TEXT)
Answer: AB

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Wednesday, September 5, 2012

000-484 Questions And Answers


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Which of the following represents the order in which a stateful session bean's methods might get executed, according to its life cycle?

A.ejbPassivate(), setSessionContext(), ejbActivate(), ejbRemove().

B.ejbActivate(), setSessionContext(), ejbPassivate(), ejbRemove().

C.setSessionContext(), ejbActivate(), ejbPassivate(), ejbRemove().

D.setSessionContext(), ejbPassivate(), ejbActivate(), ejbRemove().

Correct:D


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1.A customer's enterprise has various systems and storage technologies and applications installed. Customer executives, end-user divisions, and I/T support have attended an IBM sponsored e-business on demand briefing. Vendors have been asked to do a customer presentation and each has been provided one hour. What should IBM present to provide direction during the scheduled time?

A.IBM TotalStorage Open Software Family

B.IBM TotalStorage SAN File System

C.IBM Tivoli Offerings

D.IGS Outsourcing options

Correct:A

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2.The primary power redundancy for the IBM TotalStorage SAN Volume Controller (SVC) is provided by

A.one external UPS included with the SVC hardware

B.two external UPSs included with the SVC hardware

C.the customer's existing power infrastructure

D.the redundant power supplies of the nodes

Correct:B

3.Which of the following situations would be a good IBM TotalStorage networking implementation opportunity?

A.The customer has elected not to use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Managed SAN.

B.The customer is experiencing explosive disk storage growth.

C.The customer's direct-attached storage subsystem capacity must be increased

D.The customer's direct attached tape drives throughput is inadequate.

Correct:D

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Wednesday, August 29, 2012

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You want to combine three landscape photographs into a single, wide panorama. After you copy-and-paste the three photographs into one file. What should you do?

A. Select the three layers in the Layers palette and apply the Auto-Blend layers command.

B. Select the three layers In the Layers palette and apply the Auto-Align Layers command.

C. Select the topmost layer and apply the Align command.

D. Select the bottom layer and apply the Photomerge command.

Answer: B


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1.What does the MADUNLLOAD job do?
A. It loads the records into the report extractor
B. It formats the Dun & Bradstreet data to be loaded into the relationships table
C. It performs simple data cleansing, like removing blanks and zeros
D. It loads UNL files into the database for Member, Entity, Audit, and Relationship data
Answer: D

2.Which of the following is a contributor of member records to the Hub.?
A. Attribute Segment
B. Definitional Source
C. Informational Source
D. Consuming Source
Answer: B

3.What is the view of a member or entity in Inspector called?
A. Enterprise View
B. Composite View
C. Consolidated View
D. Most Current View
Answer: B

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Monday, August 13, 2012

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Monday, August 6, 2012

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QUESTION
IPAS is enabled for all inbound mail but you want to bypass Spam checking for messages from cisco.com.
Which three methods will do this? (Choose three.)
A. Add the IP addresses of the sending the sending mail servers of cisco.com to the White list.
B. Create a message filter to bypass Spam checking for Cisco.com.
C. Create a Mail FlowPolicyforSenderCisco.com and disable IPAS.
D. Create an incoming mail policy to match on Cisco.com and disable IPAS.
E. Create a content filter to bypass Spam checking for Cisco.com.
Answer: ABD
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following tools can you use to develop business logic in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012? (Choose all that apply.)
A. IntelliMorph
B. the MorphX IDE
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Microsoft Visual Studio 2012
Answer: DB

QUESTION 2
You are developing a form and a report for a Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 feature. Which of the following tasks can IntelliMorph automatically perform for you? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Create a new label file.
B. Suggest method names in the X++ Editor.
C. Generate the layout of forms, reports, and menus.
D. Change the look of forms and reports if the security and configuration allow changes.
E. Add fields that have been added to a table field group to a field group on forms and reports.
Answer: EDC

QUESTION 3
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, what does the AX model store contain?
A. data only
B. data and metadata
C. data and application code
D. metadata and application code
Answer: D

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Tuesday, July 31, 2012

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Once the InstallShield part of an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager FastBack (TSM FastBack) installation has been performed, what is a very important step required before TSM FastBack can be used?
A.create repository
B.define users and groups
C.define disk cleanup policy
D.define repository alert levels
Answer: A

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1. You are doing a backup of the NCCT Database after making substantial changes. You are asked to name your backup. What should you always include in the name of your backups?
A. The version of TAPI.
B. The version of NCCT.
C. The date the backup was made.
D. The name NCCT backup somewhere in the name.
Answer: B

2. You are upgrading to Nortel Communication Control Toolkit Rls. 6.0. TAPI 3.0 is currently running. To what version of TAPI will you have to upgrade?
A. TAPI 4.1
B. TAPI 4.0
C. TAPI 3.1
D. an upgrade in not needed
Answer: C

3. When you install the Communication Control Toolkit server, you must ensure that you have enough space allocated for the CCT database. What is the minimum and maximum directory size on the default drive needed to install the NCCT database?
A. minimum of 1 GBytes and maximum size of 2.0 GBytes
B. minimum of 150 MBytes and maximum size of 1.0 GBytes
C. minimum of 68.1 MBytes and maximum size of 2.0 GBytes
D. minimum of 50.7 MBytes and maximum size of 2.1 GBytes
Answer: C

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Monday, July 23, 2012

Cisco 650-027 exam dumps


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Training Exam Questions


Which of the following is not Digital Media System module?
A. Enterprise TV Module
B. Live concert Module
C. Digital Signage Module
D. Video Portal Module
Answer: B

70-663 training material description


QUESTION 1
Your network contains an internal network and a perimeter network that are separated by a firewall. The perimeter network contains a Server 2010 Edge Transport server.

You plan to deploy an internal Exchange Server 2010 organization that meets the following requirements.
Support EdgeSync synchronization
Support encrypted delivery of outbound e-mail messages to the Edge Transport server
Minimize the attack surface of the internal network

Which TCP ports should you allow form the internal network to the perimeter network?

A. 3309 and 25
B. 3309 and 636
C. 50636 and 25
D. 50636 and 135

Answer: C
Section: Designing and Deploying Security for the Exchange Organization

Explanation/Reference:



QUESTION 2
Your network consists of a single Active Directory site.

You plan to deploy Exchange Server 2010.

You need to plan the deployment of Exchange Server 2010 servers to meet the following requirements:
All Mailbox servers must belong to a database availability group (DAG)
MAPI connections from Outlook clients must be load balanced by using a hardware load balancer
If a single server fails, users must continue to send and receive e-mail
The plan must minimize the number of server deployed

What should you include in the plan?

A. Deploy two servers. On the two servers, deploy the Mailbox server role, the Client Access server role, and the Hub Transport server role. Configure a Client Access server array.
B. Deploy two servers. On the two servers, deploy the Mailbox server role, the Client Access server role, and the Hub Transport server role. Enable Outlook Anywhere on both Client Access servers.
C. Deploy four servers. On two of the servers, deploy the Mailbox server role and the Hub Transport server role. On the other two servers deploy the Client Access server role. Configure a Client Access server array.
D. Deploy four servers. On two of the servers, deploy the Mailbox server role. On the other two servers, deploy the Client Access server role, and the Hub Transport server role. Enable Outlook Anywhere on both Client Access servers.

Answer: A

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Wednesday, July 18, 2012

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Training Exam Questions

QUESTION
You need to restore some files from a file system. The file system was backed up from a snapshot. Which command will correctly restore these files?
A. fssnap -i
B. fssnap -r
C. ufsrestore -i
D. snaprestore -i
Answer: C

Tuesday, July 17, 2012

IBM 000-771 exam question

1.Which executable is used for a Unix/Linux server to generate the appropriate SSH key for the IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager/IBM Tivoli Intelligent Orchestrator Server?
A.keygen
B.keyadd.sh
C.ssh-keygen
D.ssh-keyadd
Correct:C
2.The IBM Tivoli Provisioning Manager/IBM Tivoli Intelligent Orchestrator server has been up and running for a long time and suddenly workflow deployments fail. The administrator suspects a down level version of MQ is installed. Which command verifies this?
A.mqdsp
B.mqver
C.mqlevel
D.amqvget
Correct:B
3.When creating a customer in the user interface which field is a required entry?
A.The application name
B.The name of the customer
C.The name of the associated Logical Device Operation
D.Assignment of the dedicated server for the customer
Correct:B

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Sunday, July 8, 2012

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QUESTION
A customer has a 2-core POWER5 server, thirty x86-based Linux servers, and 10TB of storage. They have budget approval for a complete infrastructure refresh, including a disaster recovery system. Which solution supports the customer needs at lowest cost?
A. Blade servers with DS5000
B. Power 770 servers with DS8000
C. Power 730 servers with DS5000
D. Power 755 servers with DS6000
Answer: C

000-206 Questions And Answers

1. A customer has purchased three IBM System Storage DS8300 systems and would like to have their SAN and storage administrator trained. The customer is worried about having much of their staff out of the office at the same time attending courses. Which training alternative provides the necessary training with the least impact?
A. purchase the training CD for the disk subsystem and have the staff do self-paced training
B. have the IBM Service Support Representative perform the training
C. contact IBM Education Services for an onsite training class
D. send one person at a time to an IBM training session
Answer: C
2. A company has acquired another company and is consolidating data centers. During the consolidation, half of the users of a business-critical application lost access. The users who maintained access experienced slow performance. What is the first action the SAN/storage administrator should take to determine the source of the problem?
A. review SAN configuration, connectivity, and zoning
B. review application parameters for contention or tuning problems
C. use internal disk monitoring tools to determine the problem source
D. check the disk parameters in the OS setup on the systems
Answer: A
3. A customer wants to collect performance data from a newly installed IBM System Storage DS8300 to determine if the system meets expected benchmarks using their application test data. Which tool best gathers the performance data?
A. IBM DS Storage Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Storage Resource Manager
C. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Disk
D. IBM TotalStorage Productivity Center for Data
Answer: C

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Sunday, July 1, 2012

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What allows development team members to checkout processes and create local versions of them within WebSphere Business Modeler when working in a multiuser environment?
A.Version control tool
B.Central repository
C.Local file system
D.Computing Value System
Correct:A

000-730 training material description

1. A user invoking a user-defined function requires which DB2 privilege?
A. CALL
B. USAGE
C. EXECUTE
D. REFERENCES
Answer: C

2. Which of the following statements is used to prevent user TOM from adding and deleting data in table TAB1?
A. REVOKE ADD, DELETE FROM USER tom ON TABLE tab1
B. REVOKE ADD, DELETE ON TABLE tab1 FROM USER tom
C. REVOKE INSERT, DELETE FROM USER tom ON TABLE tab1
D. REVOKE INSERT, DELETE ON TABLE tab1 FROM USER tom
Answer: D

3. Which of the following privileges permits a user to update the comment on a sequence?
A. CONTROL
B. UPDATE
C. USAGE
D. ALTER
Answer: D

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Thursday, June 14, 2012

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View the Exhibit to examine the description for the SALES table.
Which views can have all DML operations performed on it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE VIEW v3 AS SELECT * FROM SALES WHERE cust_id = 2034 WITH CHECK OPTION;
B. CREATE VIEW v1 AS SELECT * FROM SALES WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365 WITH CHECK OPTION;
C. CREATE VIEW v2 AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id FROM SALES WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365 WITH CHECK OPTION;
D. CREATE VIEW v4 AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, SUM(quantity_sold) FROM SALES WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365 GROUP BY prod_id, cust_id WITH CHECK OPTION;
Answer: AB